I need an expert’s opinion to help me interpret the medical terms used in my Dad’s recent CT scan report and explain to me what it might mean:
"- An i|l defined irregular outline soft tissue mass lesion is seen in relation to and indistinct from the superior wall of the 4lh part of the duodenum and duodenojejunal junction ,
about 2x4cm in dimensions .
– It is inseparable from the inner margin of the uncinate process of the pancreas and inferior
surface of the superior mesenteric artery .
– The SMV maintains a cleavage from the mass .
– No cystic nor calcifc changes .
– No significant lymph node enlargement .
– Mild dilatation of the stomach and the proximal duodenum is seen .
– The liver and spleen appear normal in size with homogenous texture.
– No focal solid or cystic lesion could be seen.
– Focal right liver lobe calcification is seen .
– The GB is normal in size and wall thickness
– No biliary tree dilatation .
– Pancreatic head , body and tail appear with in normal in size and density".
1. What is meant by: "It is inseparable from the inner margin of the uncinate process of the pancreas"? Is it an indication of pancreatic cancer that has started to spread beyond the pancreas to the duodenum?
2. Where it says: "Pancreatic head , body and tail appear with in normal in size and density". Is this a promising sign that it might not be cancer of the pancreas, since the organ is described to be healthy?
3. A biopsy was performed twice, and in one of them the following was reported: "high-grade dysplasia" Does this mean necessarily indicate malignancy?
Some background info:
My dad is over seventy, has lost some weight, often constipated (in the past few months), experiences abdominal pain that is linked to eating. However, he is not showing any signs of jaundice or yellowing of the cornea and no back pain or nausea which I believe are some of the symptoms of pancreatic cancer. Also, Dad’s blood tests are all good and within normal range. No anemia detected and white blood cell count is also within normal. Not that I’m sure if this is relevant to this particular case.
We are currently in a transitive phase. We are trying to make an appointment with an overseas specialist for further tests but we haven’t heard from them yet. In the meantime, I would appreciate some clarification on the above-quoted segment of the CT scan and my three questions in particular. Any additional info is also welcome. I hope to hear from someone who really knows about this. Thank you!